Tuesday, July 20, 2010

Divorce and Remarriage: A Permanence View [Book Review]

17 comments:

An Amplified Voice said...

I thought this book would take another view; in that mankind was initially in union with God, but rejected God and "married another" god. However, by God's grace He allowed the divorce from idolatry and re-married mankind; hence why Paul instituted (by inspiration of the Godhead) that a person was not in bondage any longer if an unbeliever departed and could remarry (without death). Interesting review though.

PJ King said...

AAV,

Thanks for coming to the blog. The verse to which you are referring is 1 Corinthians 7:15. I deal with this verse in our Divorce and Remarriage position Part 2, but our interpretation of it is in light of the rest of Scripture (dealt with in Parts 1 and 2).

I encourage you to read both in order to understand our conclusion (and the conclusion of the authors of this book).

From Part 2:
"Previously, I thought that verse 15 permits an individual to remarry if his or her unbelieving spouse leaves. In light of our discussion above, as well as the immediate context of the clause (divorce, not remarriage), I no longer consider this to be accurate. “In such cases the brother or sister is not enslaved” does not mean that one is free to remarry but rather, that one is not required to live with an unbeliever who wants to separate. The peace referenced in this situation is not the peace of marrying another, but the peace of not living in strife."

http://www.pillarontherock.com/2010/05/divorce-and-remarriage-part-1.html
http://www.pillarontherock.com/2010/05/divorce-and-remarriage-part-2.html

Thanks for commenting!

An Amplified Voice said...

Thank you for responding. I understand your position, just not your exegesis of the passage, and I hope more do not take your position; seeing that re-marriage would then be "an" unpardonable sin (living in continued adultery and rebellion against God, without the possibility of forgiveness). I surely would think this is your position, but inevitably would be the end result. Your thoughts to this solution?

PJ King said...

Actually, I do not hold the position that remarriage is an "unpardonable" sin. There is an inherent tension in how the sin(s) of divorce and remarriage should be handled -- as one sin, or multiple sins.

In a (very) lengthy comment, I attempted to deal with this tension by affirming a "state" of adultery (similar to our fallen state). I encourage you to take a look at it.

An Amplified Voice said...

PJ,

First, I need to correct my previous statement: I meant to say "I surely would 'not' think this is your position," sorry for the grammatical error, on my part, forgive me.

Next, I have read your comments concerning the "state" of adultery; however, this seems to be much like eisegesis, from a small piece of text. Are we creating doctrine from silence? I don't believe there is enough context for the church to banish, excommunicate, or label those re-married as living in a "state" of adultery forever (I know you never stated that, I'm perceiving at an end result).

However, it is interesting that Jesus informed the woman at the well that she "was" married five times. He did not express that she was only married once and the five men were just "states" of adultery (Jn. 4:18), but that the man she was currently committing adultery with, was not any of her husbands. In this case, I can see the use of "state" because it refers to an active, continual, presence (i.e. a person is lying in "state"); meaning, she was in a "state" of adultery, not being married, or in covenant. How would you interpret Christ's response to this woman and the fact that the same Greek word for husband is used here and in Matthew 1:19 (Mary's husband Joseph)? Thanks for your time.

PJ King said...

Having the "not" makes much more sense.

The state argument is merely a musing which I consider potentially helpful for wading through a difficult topic. My state theory, however, does not necessarily conclude with banishment, et al. You should note that I concluded my comments with this sentiment: "Additionally, it is important to keep in mind that the state of adultery would not prohibit someone from being a member in good standing in a church. Because one can repent of the sin that caused the adultery, one can be forgiven by God and by the church."

Additionally, I do not disagree with you that remarriages are full covenantal marriages. To quote myself again: "Correspondingly, remaining in his remarriage does not cause him to commit more adultery - it is not sinful for him to remain with his new spouse. He broke one covenant, but he should never break his new one."

The state of adultery does not cause the remarriage to be null, it just means that the prior marriage covenant was broken (on his end) and can not be repaired.

Thanks for the thoughtful questions.

An Amplified Voice said...

PJ,

I think we basically agree, but perhaps I need some more confirmation on the subject. Are you making the proposition that believers who re-marry, no matter the first circumstance concerning the divorce (i.e. adulterous affair, abuse, or desertion) are in a state of adultery. Let me clarify, if Bob and Mary married, but after several years, Mary commits adultery and leaves Bob for another man; is Bob forbidden to ever re-marry, and if he does is he in, as you claim, a "state" of adultery?

I will await your response.

PJ King said...

The "state" question is not terribly important (considering that I'm the only person I know of to use the concept with regards to divorce/remarriage).

I will answer your question in this way:
Scripture prohibits remarriage after divorce, regardless of the cause of the divorce, for as long as the other spouse lives. Therefore, if Bob remarries while Mary is alive, then Bob is committing adultery.

Obviously, this is a tough situation, but I think that scripture is clear, when considered holistically. Specifically, keep in mind Matthew 5:32 and 1 Corinthians 7:10-11, both of which are dealt with in my position paper.

The only potential outlier for this is found in Matthew 19:9. However, this verse doesn't really jive with the rest of the passages on divorce and remarriage. I would point you to a position by John Piper (which I summarize here) for a potential interpretation of 19:9.

But yes, if one is considering my theory on the state of adultery, Bob's remarriage would break his end of the covenant, thereby placing him in a state of adultery for the life of Mary.

An Amplified Voice said...

PJ,

Thanks I think you summed it up for me. Let me humbly respond and with God knowing I am only making a summation, which is not intended to offend any, including Him.

However, I would extrapolate: the Lord Almighty, in divorcing Israel, has committed adultery, since, as you stated, re-marriage is not permitted. Is the bride the Church (Rev. 21), it cannot be, if this is the case, correct? Am I missing something, which you have not addressed here? I suspect Paul should not have stated in Romans 11 that "all Israel will be saved," as God cannot turn back to a previous marriage; but this puts God is a quandary, as He is forced to adhere to His own Law and cannot re-marry anyone. He is either forever alone, or lives in a state of adultery marrying the Church at the great wedding feast. Have you considered this?

Chris Krycho said...

Had typos!

I think we would argue (as the authors of this book did, for example) that the divorce being referenced in Jeremiah 3:8 is (1) meant as analogy and (2) distinctly not permanent. We need look only a few verses further (Jeremiah 3:11-13 and especially Jeremiah 9:14) to see that God fully intended restoration of this covenant relationship. Moreover, it does not follow that taking back one's wife is adultery; to the contrary, this is what should be done if at all possible. (This is a point I noted in one of my posts on practical applications.)

Moreover, we would argue that the Church and Israel, though not identical, are much more closely related and connected than your summary might suggest. There are some differences, but there is also a great deal of continuity, and the Abrahamic covenant is fulfilled in Christ (and therefore in the Church).

Finally, we ought to interpret analogical passages (such as those describing God's relationship to his people in terms of marriage) carefully, and not allow analogies to override clear doctrinal statements. In particular, Jesus' (and Paul's) rejection of remarriage ought to compel us to reject it as well, even if we could interpret the passages mentioned above as you suggest. (For the reasons I already spelled out, I do not believe we can.)

Thank you for contributing to the conversation and especially for doing so gently and respectfully. It's hard to do on a topic with so much emotion involved.

An Amplified Voice said...

PJ,

All emotion is aside, believe me, my points are based concerning, there cannot be a "state" theory. It is, or is not, continual sin, and I think we must agree that has been the stance throughout the ages of ecclesiastical history, resoundingly so. For if we take, and I assume you do, Christ's words, as not metaphorical,analogous, or figurative, but to level the "playing field" (so to speak) all are adulterers: He said that anyone who lusts after a woman commits adultery. I think "we" would all be in a "state" of sin then: do you see my argument here?

I think the evidence weighs too strongly for new doctrine to be made from silence. I think where the Bible is silent, we too, ought to reserve our judgments, and be silent. Sorry for the continuance, but its a good topic, as divorce is rampant, and high among believers; just not sure this is the answer.

PJ King said...

As I implied before, my state theory is a philosophical tool and not a doctrine. I'm not proclaiming it as truth, but merely as, perhaps, a way of thinking about divorce and remarriage.

Additionally, it would not apply to Jesus' statement that all who have lusted have committed adultery. That form of adultery is definitely a one-time sin and there could be no state associated with it (in this context). My philosophical reasoning of "state" only really applies to the breaking of the marriage covenant.

But, as I said, it's only a way of thinking.

Concerned Christian said...

I wanted to jump in here and offer a few things to the discussion. I have recently purchased the book Divorce and remarriage, a permanence view and found that it jived quiet nicely with a paper that I have been working on for 7 years. Divorce has run rampant in my family as well as the church and I just found it hard to believe that there was a "loophole" in Christ's words regarding an exception. I have many thoughts, but will not try and voice them all here in this post. I did however, feel that a particular thing I have noticed in God's dealings with Israel were curious in regards to the divorce and remarriage debate. The thought is this, God may have divorced isarel, but if we look closely at the passages where he does this we need to remember two things...

1. God is only BETROTHED to Israel. The Great marriage supper of the lamb has not taken place. The Son has not even come for his bride, yet. If one takes the betrothal view as being the only grounds for divorce, then there is no cotnradictions with the fact that God divorced her.

2. God did not marry another. Israel is still his chosen people and he pleads for her return, even today.

If I have missed something somewhere or someone can show me where this is NOT the case, I am open for correction. I simply want to honor God and promot what is God's will among the church. I have nothing to gain or lose either way. I am not divorced and therefore am not trying to justify anything. I just believe that this is an issue that continues to fuel lots of debate, but the truth is clear. It is easy for us to insert our own personal experiences into how we interpret scripture and this can be dangerous.

Concerned Christian

Chris Krycho said...

Concerned Christian and An Amplified Voice: first, thank you for stopping by and offering your comments, all of them in a respectful and helpful way. Second, in the future, do you mind posting under your real name? You can see our comments policy for details, but we generally discourage the use of pseudonyms here. Thanks!

AAV, I'm going to primarily address CC's post directly, as I think it answers your questions as well.

On your first point, that's an interesting view, and I hadn't considered the implication of the future (that is, eschatological) wedding of the Lamb. That said, I would be hesitant to take the argument too far. In the passages where God speaks of divorcing Israel (especially Jeremiah 3:1-10, esp. v. 1-3), he also clearly makes references to Israel as being analogous to a wife, not simply one who is betrothed. So I don't think your first point is one I can agree with in these contexts. There are a number of different analogies and metaphors being used in different contexts, and respect for the contexts should lead us to treat the passages differently.

On the other hand, I wholeheartedly concur with your second point: God has not married a new bride; he has taken the old bride back and purified her. There can be no claim of adultery. The church is a continuation of Israel, a wild branch that has been grafted onto the old vine, not a replacement for it. The promise of prophecies both before and after Jesus' first coming is that Israel will be restored (something we should all faithfully pray for).

Finally (and this goes directly to AAV's question), the passages in question are all analogical in nature. God giving a divorce is not an argument for our doing, because he's using the concept of a divorce to describe his coming punishment on his people. Accordingly, these passages should not inform our view of remarriage. If we want to apply those passages as directly as you suggest, God also speaks of having two wives, Israel and Judah. Obviously none of us are arguing for that! I think we need to understand these passages as descriptive metaphor, or run the risk of some very problematic views.

Thank you again for your thought provoking comments and the respectful tone in which they were offered!

Al Ligon said...

Let scripture speak. It is plain that divorce is not commanded, but permitted in the case of adultery (porneia)and desertion of a believer by a non-believer. Three of the four gospels and ICorinthians make that very, very, clear. Chrisitans are not to divorce each other, but if they do they are to reconcile. If a believer is abandoned by an unbeliever, they are to let the person go and is NOT obligated. Based on the flow from the beginning of the text, the believer is released from the covenant and can remarry. We are called to peace. As fallen,sinful creature we tend to make scripture say things it doesn't.

Chris Krycho said...

Al, thanks for your comment. I wholeheartedly agree that we should let Scripture speak. On that note, I'd encourage you to read through the series PJ and I wrote, in which PJ traced through each of the discussions of divorce and remarriage in the New Testament (and several in the Old!) and came to the same conclusion as the authors of this book. The only major point of disagreement between you and us seems to be on the point of remarriage – and I do think that PJ's exegesis (along with Piper's and a number of others') on that point is compelling.

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